So a co-worker was talking about someone’s stupid plan to always play the previous winning lotto numbers. I chimed in that I was pretty sure that didn’t actually hurt their odds. They thought I was crazy, pointing out that probably no lottery ever rolled the same five-six winning numbers twice in a row.
I seem to remember that I am correct, any sequence of numbers has the same odds. But I was totally unable to articulate how that could be. Can someone help me out? It does really seem like the person using this method would be at a serious disadvantage.
Edit: I get it, and I’m not gonna think about balls anymore today.
In: Mathematics
Yes, it’s true, assuming the lottery is fair and doesn’t cook the numbers to avoid such events. The fact that your friend has never heard about it happening is also likely.
The truth is, any sequence of numbers has the same chance of appearing next, even if it’s the same sequence. It’s unlikely, true, but as unlikely as you choosing the correct sequence.
2-3-10-15-20-20 to 10-20-30-40-50-60
1-2-3-4-5-6 to 1-2-3-4-5-6
Both chances are equally correct.
Assuming a 60 possible numbers and a pick of 6, there’s 50 063 860 possibilities. The possibilities are the exact same for both round, the previous results have no influence in subsequent lotteries. While the chances are low you’ll ever see to contests have the same combinations (because there’s 50 million of them), again, there’s no disadvantage, it’s the same as choosing any other sequence.
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