poor people have more children, on average. How long has this been true?

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Did medieval peasants have more children on average than royalty? Or is this a modern phenomenon?

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62 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

I would imagine it is age old. In the olden times more kids meant more potential labors. And, you had to play the odds because some might not make it.

Anonymous 0 Comments

I would imagine it is age old. In the olden times more kids meant more potential labors. And, you had to play the odds because some might not make it.

Anonymous 0 Comments

i dont know why

Some will die in hot pursuit
And fiery auto crashes
Some will die in hot pursuit
While sifting through my ashes
Some will fall in love with life
And drink it from a fountain
That is pouring like an avalanche
Coming down the mountain

Anonymous 0 Comments

i dont know why

Some will die in hot pursuit
And fiery auto crashes
Some will die in hot pursuit
While sifting through my ashes
Some will fall in love with life
And drink it from a fountain
That is pouring like an avalanche
Coming down the mountain

Anonymous 0 Comments

i dont know why

Some will die in hot pursuit
And fiery auto crashes
Some will die in hot pursuit
While sifting through my ashes
Some will fall in love with life
And drink it from a fountain
That is pouring like an avalanche
Coming down the mountain

Anonymous 0 Comments

At least im my country Australia, for as long as they keep getting paid to do so.

Sad really.

Anonymous 0 Comments

At least im my country Australia, for as long as they keep getting paid to do so.

Sad really.

Anonymous 0 Comments

At least im my country Australia, for as long as they keep getting paid to do so.

Sad really.

Anonymous 0 Comments

I’m seeing lots of speculation and not much data. If you want data, check out this review paper which puts together data from a _ton_ of studies.

https://www.demographic-research.org/volumes/vol18/5/18-5.pdf

Looking at all studies together, on average the transition happened around 1800, but this is probably mostly driven by the western world, which has the best data. Seems to have happened more recently in other parts of the world.

Historical records tend to find that in the middle ages the wealthy had more kids on average.

Anonymous 0 Comments

I’m seeing lots of speculation and not much data. If you want data, check out this review paper which puts together data from a _ton_ of studies.

https://www.demographic-research.org/volumes/vol18/5/18-5.pdf

Looking at all studies together, on average the transition happened around 1800, but this is probably mostly driven by the western world, which has the best data. Seems to have happened more recently in other parts of the world.

Historical records tend to find that in the middle ages the wealthy had more kids on average.