There are infinitely many real numbers between 0 and 1. Are there twice as many between 0 and 2, or are the two amounts equal?

Question

I know the actual technical answer. I’m looking for a witty parallel that has a low chance of triggering an infinite “why?” procedure in a child.

In: 1335

Answer 1

There the same amounts.

Take any number between 0 and 1. Multiply it by two, you get a number between 0 and 2.

Take any number between 0 and 2. Multiply it by 0.5, you get a number between 0 and 1.

Since you can couple every number between 0 and 1 with a number between 0 and 2 in that way, with no number staying uncoupled on either side, you got the same amount of numbers in each interval.

Source: math teacher.