There are infinitely many real numbers between 0 and 1. Are there twice as many between 0 and 2, or are the two amounts equal?

Question

I know the actual technical answer. I’m looking for a witty parallel that has a low chance of triggering an infinite “why?” procedure in a child.

In: 1335

Answer 1

You can map every number between 0 and 1 to every number in between 0 and 2 by means of a simple function: f(x) = 2x. If you can, conceptually, draw a line between every element of one set, and every element of another, they must have the same number of elements.