There are infinitely many real numbers between 0 and 1. Are there twice as many between 0 and 2, or are the two amounts equal?

Question

I know the actual technical answer. I’m looking for a witty parallel that has a low chance of triggering an infinite “why?” procedure in a child.

In: 1335

Answer 1

If there is one infinity between 0 and 1, then 0 to 2 would be twice that. While these are technically the same, the second is slightly larger because of the two infinity and beyond.