I swear I leaned this in school at some point but its been bothering me .
If you throw a six sided die, the odds of rolling a six are 1/6.
But what are the odds of rolling at least one six if you throw two dice at the same time? I thought it was 1/6 + 1/6 or 2/6, but suspect I might be wrong.
This is the idea that has me stuck. If you throw 6 dice at the same time what are the odds of rolling at least one 6 ? It can’t be 6/6 or 100%. The odds of rolling at least one 6 are certainly high but absolutely not 100%, so the logic I used for the two dice can’t be correct. There must be a formula for this but I’m having trouble searching for it . Thanks !
In: 12
This is not “ELI5” but try thinking of it this way:
To get AT LEAST 1 6, you must throw 6 dice and none can come out 6, right?
So on the 1st dice you need 1 to 5 out of 6, on the 2nd as well and so on.
So:
(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6) – multiply this and its 0,335 aprox or roughly 1 in 3 of getting no 6. So the odds of getting at least 1 6 is the reverse -> 100% – 33,5% or aprox 66,5%
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