Let’s say that Queen Elizabeth II of England were to marry King Juan Carlos I of Spain (hypothetical). What would happen to their realms if these two sovereigns were to marry. What about their titles? Would their kids be in line to the Spanish throne, British throne, or both?
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If the heads of two royal households, or the direct heirs to their thrones were to get married today, it would all be worked out before the marriage as to what would happen.
And I suspect the most likely thing would be one of them would renounce their title if they really wanted to marry the other. I think it would be because if two such people were to plan to marry it would because they had fallen for each other, rather than the marriage being for political means
Historically, it could result in the union of two nations into one. This happened in the 15th century when Queen Isabella of Castile and Leon married king ferdinand II of Aragon. This joined their countries together to form Spain.
It was common/the norm for royals from one family to marry the royal of another family and maintain alliances through these marriages. It would also result in the different royal houses all being related to each other. For example during WWI, king George V of the UK, Kiaser Wilhelm II of Germany and the wife of Tzar Nicholas II were all grandchildren of Queen Victoria. The rulers of Austria and Bulgaria were also relations of Queen Victoria, but more distant.
Having said this, historically these were arranged marriages so you would never get the direct heir of one throne being married off to the direct heir of another throne.
In more modern times (a bit more modern), it happened when Queen Elizabeth II (then Princess Elizabeth) was to marry Prince Philip. He was in the line of succession for the greek throne (also had a line to the danish throne too). He had moved to the Uk when there was political upheaval in Greece and left Greece before he was 1 year old. In the lead up to his marriage to Elizabeth he became a naturalised British citizenship, gave up his Greek citizenship and renounced his Greek and danish titles. Although there is no law that required him to do this, it seemed that he and those around the couple agreed that fully integrating to Britain and loosing the connection to the other countries was best politically. It also meant that if political turmoil developed in Greece or Denmark, then the British royal family would not get involved.
This all got very rambling and I’ve now re-read it so many times I can’t work out if it makes sense, so please point out where it doesn’t make sense and I’ll unpick it
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