So I’ve come across this piece of news where a so called „Arbys foundation“ payed 1000000$ to schools so that they can pay off their student‘s debts.
Now what I am wondering about, what does that mean exactly? Because what the article implies is that children are being indebted for free school lunches, which seems to lack a lot of nuance and would be illegal if it was true.
Does it simply mean that the schools themselves have to come up to pay, or is it a matter of the city government?
PS: I am German therefore I may have screwed up with the grammar and possibly the vocabulary too.
In: Economics
>Because what the article implies is that children are being indebted for free school lunches
They’re not free, that’s why they’re in debt. There are need-based programs that make them free, but if you don’t qualify you have to pay. School lunches were made free for everyone as part of Covid relief, but that’s not the case anymore.
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