When talking about languages, people sometimes say language A understands language B but language B doesn’t understand language A. How can that be?

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The way I see it, if one understands another language, it’s because of similarities in syntax, grammar, etymology or what not. But a similarity is by definition bidirectional, is it not? Is the idea that some languages understand other better than they are themselves understood a lie?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

It’s a lot about practice and which language group imports more content from the other.

If one group imports television/movies from the other the speaker will be much more used to the other language.

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