Why are many Western brands (cars, apparel, houseware, etc) considered “luxury” brands in non-Western parts of the world?

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Especially as many of these products are partially or entirely manufactured in non-Western countries.

In: Economics

7 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

All of the most in-demand luxury brands are western (and primarily European) because they’re the oldest, the have the greatest “history” behind them, and they’ve proven that they can maintain quality standards/hold reasonable value over the long term.

Take Louis Vuitton as an example.

It was founded in 1854 and was the exclusive trunk maker to the then-Empress of France.

Hermes is even older, founded in 1837 as a maker of high-end saddles, bridles, etc, to the French nobility.

Ferrari was founded in 1939, and has consistently produced some of the most beautiful, powerful, and exclusive vehicles in the world.

Luxury is all about perception.

The old European luxury brands have the cachet that comes from centuries of producing the finest quality and most expensive luxury clothing, bags, cars, etc.

They’re instantly recognizable to virtually anyone who matters, there are huge collectible possibilities, and they generally are very high quality.

It’s extremely difficult to convince someone that something is truly “luxury” instead of just “expensive”.

The European luxury houses accomplished that 100+ years ago, and have maintained it ever since.

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