Slavic languages were written in Cyrillic, but after a while, they started to use the Latin script, and the languages were completely split into separate languages using different scripts, now being known as Eastern and Western Slavic. However, looking at Asian and Middle-Eastern languages, we see that they are not splitting into different languages using different scripts like Slavic languages. Why did that not happen to them?
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They are though? Japanese script is a direct split from classic Chinese. Korean Hangul, while old, only really saw mass adoption in a nationalism push. Before that they used a derivative of Chinese script.
India practically has a different script per state. Some look similar but aren’t directly transferable.
I don’t know Arabic script, but imagine Abjads have distinct variations.
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