Slavic languages were written in Cyrillic, but after a while, they started to use the Latin script, and the languages were completely split into separate languages using different scripts, now being known as Eastern and Western Slavic. However, looking at Asian and Middle-Eastern languages, we see that they are not splitting into different languages using different scripts like Slavic languages. Why did that not happen to them?
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Have they?
Vietnamese uses Latin due to French influence, Tagalog does too. Chinese is somewhat original but China imposed or standardized a Chinese script on their territories and those they conquered. Korea used the Chinese based Hanja as their original script but eventually Korea was mostly switched over to their own designed Hangul.
Scripts in all cultures have been replaced or drastically evolved over time, there is no “original script.” The Cyrillic of today is nothing near the original Cyrillic as isn’t the Chinese of 2000 years ago the same as that of today. Ironically Cyrillic was neither invented by Cyril nor was it the first Slavic script, that would be Glagolitic.
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