why did none of the latin countries in America succeed like the english ones?
In: Economics
Probably not a single factor nor universal.
Spain and Britain had very different governments and started colonizing at different times. Spain was a monarchy for most of their colonial period and likely exported this form of control – focusing on landlords, aristocracy and serfs – essentially feudal structures through their colonies. The first British colony came more than 100 years after Spain’s and within a few decades of that, the British monarchs were removed from most executive power and Britain became a parliamentary democracy. (super ELI5)
There were different models for British colonies – some were political/religious exiles, some were penal colonies and a fair number were trade colonies. Very broadly speaking, the British tended to educate the locals, set up administrations staffed by the locals and generally implemented a system of laws broadly based on the British system. In a sense, the British co-opted the locals to maintain their colonies while the Spanish tended to treat the locals as serfs and themselves as local lords.
Generally speaking, the feudal system did not adjust well to the Industrial revolution.
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