What I’m trying to ask is, if the slave trade develop in order to bring slave labor to America, de facto viewing the subjects brought across the ocean as inferior (I’m guessing due to skin color and cultural differences) why did it not develop with the indigenous people in the americas as well? They were different colors skin and culturally different, and it wouldn’t have required transporting millions of people across a very large ocean.
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In places where disease hadnt fully killed off the indigenous peoples (central and South America), it did. The indigenous peoples worked on farms and in mines under the Hacienda system. You tend to see more African slaves in areas where those indigenous peoples rapidly died off and/or where cash crops were in high demand (also usually costal areas), such as in Haiti, the American South, and Brazil.
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