What I’m trying to ask is, if the slave trade develop in order to bring slave labor to America, de facto viewing the subjects brought across the ocean as inferior (I’m guessing due to skin color and cultural differences) why did it not develop with the indigenous people in the americas as well? They were different colors skin and culturally different, and it wouldn’t have required transporting millions of people across a very large ocean.
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>de facto viewing the subjects brought across the ocean as inferior
I think you’ll find that although cultural chauvinism is very common, historically, people tended to take advantage of other people whenever they were able to, coming up with more elaborate justifications for it over time.
Reasons to want African slaves:
-culturally they were already familiar with horses, which the indigenous people really weren’t
-because Africa and Europe had been interacting throughout history much more deeply African slaves were much more resistant to the diseases that took out ~80% of the native people.
What is your question exactly? Anyway, below my answers on what might be your question.
– There was slavery on the American continent before Europeans arrived.
– There was slavery on the African continent before Europeans got involved in slavery on the African continent. (a lot of them were white slaves btw)
– Europeans didn’t (at least for the biggest part) capture slaves in Africa. They bought them from African slave traders.
If you consider slaves produce rather than people it’s simply supply and demand.
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