why do only some of the Bill of Rights apply to the states but not all? I thought the bill of rights was for the people, regardless of federal or state arenas
In the case of the First Amendment, it actually says ”Congress shall make no law” doing those things, so by its own terms, it could not be applied to the states. For the rest, it’s less clear, but the courts of the day took a small view of federal power over the states.
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