Why do Spanish speakers in Spain speak with a lisp yet other Spanish speakers don’t?

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I’m also wondering if there are rules on when to use a lisp sound and when not to. Thank you!

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Anonymous 0 Comments

The Castilian lisp, really more of an accent, comes from a separate Castilian language spoken in some parts of Spain which contains those “th” sounds mostly from Arabic words. It became the language of the court of the kingdoms of Castile and León in the 12th century, and the dominance of Castile within Spain allowed it to become part of the official Spanish language at that time. In places where Spanish and Portuguese interacted, like Latin America, it’s typically missing. I learned that accent in school, and when I later started speaking to native speakers of Mexican Spanish they would often say “Why do you talk like a priest?”

Anonymous 0 Comments

It’s not a lisp, a lisp is a speech impediment.

The spanish language originated in Castile(a region of Spain) and there the S has a diferent pronounciation than the letters Z/C. But in some spanish accents like andalusian(from the region of Andalusia, Spain) the diference was lost and people pronounce both the same, this is called “seseo”(because both are pronounced as an S). There is also some accents where its the other way around and they have “ceceo” instead (pronounce both as a C/Z).

In latin america the seseo became the mainstream accent, likely because most of the spanish people that went to the americas after the conquest came from regions of Spain that had the “seseo” accent.