Inflation seems to be a relatively new thing in economics, only being a major concern since about 1940.
Looking at [this UK Currency graph](https://www.google.com/url?sa=i&url=https%3A%2F%2Fmonevator.com%2Fa-history-of-uk-inflation%2F&psig=AOvVaw2m1_C7lFBlK_s-ePJDySaV&ust=1691140545682000&source=images&cd=vfe&opi=89978449&ved=0CBAQjRxqFwoTCOCx8s2TwIADFQAAAAAdAAAAABAJ) or [this US graph](https://images.squarespace-cdn.com/content/v1/50060e33c4aa3dba773634ec/1464789250138-XL20G32RKBAYP87JGP74/image-asset.png), inflation/deflation was not a continuous thing until the modern era.
Is this because of fractional reserve banking, or constant government deficits in both countries? Or both? What changed in economic policy – perhaps the funding required for modern government programs?
Or perhaps this effect isn’t as new as I perceive – at least in the case of the United States. [This graph](https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/2/20/US_Historical_Inflation_Ancient.svg/1200px-US_Historical_Inflation_Ancient.svg.png) shows inflation and deflation to be evident in the past, but they balanced: so why don’t they now?
Surely an idealised society wants very little inflation, maybe around 0.5%, just enough to allow for debt to deflate and ‘incentivise investment’, but nowhere near as much as today’s salary-eroding amounts.
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Today, specifically, because people were given so much free cash during covid. Infrastructure Bill, PpP, student loan deferment, lower rates, covid unemployment checks, Medicaid, food stamps, etc … more buying power means more demand means more competition means higher prices.
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