Why does the caffeine in coffee make us need to use the restroom, but the caffeine in soda doesn’t, despite being around the same amount of stimulant?

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Edit: I do not usually drink colas, I prefer clear sodas.

Mountain Dew is my favorite. When I think of having a Mountain Dew, I usually think of the 20 oz bottles. I don’t keep soda cans in the fridge.

When I have coffee I usually have the normal 12 oz over ice.

12 oz of coffee is more or less 100 mgs of caffeine. 20 oz of Mountain Dew is more or less 100 mgs of caffeine. This is why I said, “about the same amount of caffiene,” in my title.

I understand the confusion, and appreciate y’all caring enough to try and correct me in the comments. Hopefully this cleared some things up!

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24 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

It coincides with the time of day. The morning is when you are most likely going to empty your bladder.

Anonymous 0 Comments

Diuretic is the drug type that makes kidney basically expel more urine to bladder. Caffeine is both a stimulant and diuretic. Not all stimulants are diuretics. Coke 12 oz is about 35 mg of caffeine while 12 oz of coffee is around 100-125 mg. It’s not even really close.

Anonymous 0 Comments

Coffee has much more than just caffeine in it, it also contains other alkaloids like theobromine, and in lower concentrations a myriad of other compounds similar to caffeine, this full spectrum blend is what makes some people say that coffee gives a different feeling than the equivalent amount of caffeine. In my personal experience, there’s something about coffee in and of itself that causes this phenomenon. A 200mg caffeine pill does almost nothing with regards to that, but a single cup of coffee (~100mg?) absolutely will! Same story with soda etc. while I don’t have any concrete proof to back this up, I believe that it is mainly caused by other compounds found in coffee.

Anonymous 0 Comments

Coffee *usually* has more caffeine than soda, and soda usually has a lot of salt in it, which makes you retain moisture.