Like. I know they are different and that one is less likely. But could someone explain this in a way that I can explain it to my partner? I know it is true but cannot remember anything about why and how to explain my point.
In: 6
Depending on what you meant. They could be the same or different.
If you have 1 – 10 numbered on marbles and just need to pull 1-7, then each one has a 10% chance for a collective 70%
If you are talking about making attempts at something over and over you multiply the odds against each other.
(7% x 7% x 7%) = .0343% chance you hit 3 times in a row.
If you just want to win once then it’s slightly backwards, calculate the odds of failing over and over then flip it.
100% – [(100% – 7%) * (100% – 7%) etc. ]
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