Why is any number squared equal to the the number before it times the number after it plus one? 485 viewsMarch 30, 2024MathematicsOther Question100.55K March 30, 2024 0 Comments Why is any number squared equal to the the number before it times the number after it plus one? Basically: x(x+2)+1=(x+1)^2 Does this work for all numbers?? In: Mathematics 7 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted March 30, 2024 0 Comments Adding to the other answers, if you multiply the number two before and two after, the difference is 4. If you multiply the number three before and three after, the difference is 9. See the pattern? You are viewing 1 out of 7 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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