Why is any number squared equal to the the number before it times the number after it plus one? 495 viewsMarch 30, 2024MathematicsOther Question100.55K March 30, 2024 0 Comments Why is any number squared equal to the the number before it times the number after it plus one? Basically: x(x+2)+1=(x+1)^2 Does this work for all numbers?? In: Mathematics 7 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted March 30, 2024 0 Comments A clearer way to write it is: > Basically: > **(x-1)(x+1)** + 1 = x^^2 Since (x-1)(x+1) = x^^2 – 1 this can be simplified to: > Basically: > **x^^2 – 1** + 1 = x^^2 You are viewing 1 out of 7 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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