why is area under 1/x^2 as x approaches infinite finite while area under 1/x is infinite?

550 views

They both get closer to but never reaching zero. Is the reason simply that one gets 1/x^2 gets closer to zero faster? So whats the threshold for something to be considered finite or infinite?

In: 59

11 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

The area under 1/x is closely related to the sum of all numbers 1/n which you can prove goes to infinity as follows.

You can sum the numbers in chunks:

* 1/2
* 1/3 + 1/4
* 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7 + 1/8
* …

1/3 > 1/4, so 1/3 + 1/4 > 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2.
1/5, 1/6, 1/7 are each greater than 1/8. So 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7 + 1/8 > 4 * 1/8 = 1/2.

Each chunk has twice as many numbers as the previous, and each chunk sums to some value greater than or equal to 1/2.

For the sum to be finite, there is a number k such that that for all n, the sum is less than k.

So take a number k. If we sum up the first 2*k chunks (about 2^((2*k)) numbers) of the sequence, we get at least 2*k*(1/2) = k. So there is no limit to this sum.

If you try to do the equivalent for 1/(2^(x)) you get the following sequence:

1. 1/2
2. 1/2 + 1/4 = 3/4
3. 3/4 + 1/8 = 7/8
4. 7/8 + 1/16 = 15/16

And you can see that the nth number is always 1 – 1/(2^(n)), which will always be less than 1.

I used a different sequence there, because it’s a very neat one, but you get the idea I think.

You are viewing 1 out of 11 answers, click here to view all answers.