why is area under 1/x^2 as x approaches infinite finite while area under 1/x is infinite? 552 viewsDecember 31, 2023 Question100.55K October 12, 2023 0 Comments They both get closer to but never reaching zero. Is the reason simply that one gets 1/x^2 gets closer to zero faster? So whats the threshold for something to be considered finite or infinite? In: 59 11 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted October 12, 2023 0 Comments [deleted] You are viewing 1 out of 11 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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