why is area under 1/x^2 as x approaches infinite finite while area under 1/x is infinite?

464 views

They both get closer to but never reaching zero. Is the reason simply that one gets 1/x^2 gets closer to zero faster? So whats the threshold for something to be considered finite or infinite?

In: 59

11 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

Yes, the difference is that 1/x² approaches zero faster.

If you make rectangles of width 1 under the curve of 1/x, you end up adding the areas 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 +… This sum diverges, but just barely. Pretty much any other curve that approaches zero any faster will have a smaller enough area that you can add up all the rectangles and get a finite number.

You are viewing 1 out of 11 answers, click here to view all answers.