Why is it mathematically consistent to allow imaginary numbers but prohibit division by zero?

822 views

Couldn’t the result of division by zero be “defined”, just like the square root of -1?

Edit: Wow, thanks for all the great answers! This thread was really interesting and I learned a lot from you all. While there were many excellent answers, the ones that mentioned Riemann Sphere were exactly what I was looking for:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riemann\_sphere

TIL: There are many excellent mathematicians on Reddit!

In: 1691

19 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

ELI5: think about your question.

What’s 5/5? Five things divided into 5 groups. How many items per group? That’s 1.

What’s 5/1? Five things divided into 1 group. How many items in that group? That’s 5.

What’s 5/0? Five things divided into 0 groups. Or, five things that aren’t counted in a group at all. It’s not zero, the group isn’t a thing.

It’s not that we need to invent a thing, your question is designed to be unanswerable because of how it’s constructed.

You are viewing 1 out of 19 answers, click here to view all answers.