Why is its possessive form without an apostrophe, when it’s opposite of other English rules and often counter-intuitive? 646 viewsJanuary 3, 2024 Question100.55K March 15, 2022 0 Comments See this headline: proper usage, but difficult to parse. “It’s” = “it is”, exclusively. The origin of this “exception” rule? In: 6 9 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted March 15, 2022 0 Comments “Its” indicating possession without an apostrophe can also be seen in other possessive pronouns (e.g. hers, his, ours, theirs, yours). You are viewing 1 out of 9 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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