Imagine smash and grab person, he or she will be charged for that, but bot for selling that and not taxing that profit. Or small scale drug dealer, he makes money but does not get charged with tax evasion. Same for robbery or embezzlement or anything. Why are tax evasion charges not being added on top of original charges??
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1. In the US, VAT/GST does not exist, so gaining ownership of something does not mean that you have to pay tax because of that.
2. In countries with VAT/GST, it is defined as the tax added on top of the value of goods or services provided by the business. This means the business needs to sell the goods and services to you, then you owe the tax. More practically, the business needs to provide an invoice to you that this item has been sold to you, along with the tax incurred. If the item is obtained not via the business selling it to you, then it does not incur VAT/GST.
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