Why is the factorial of 0 equal to 1? 871 viewsDecember 31, 2023 Question100.55K October 4, 2023 0 Comments Wouldn’t this also mean that 1!=0!, why is this true? In: 383 18 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted October 4, 2023 0 Comments Because you think factorial as a multiplication while it is actually a division. n! = (n+1)! / (n+1) For n = 0; 0! = 1! / 1 = 1 You are viewing 1 out of 18 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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