Why is the factorial of 0 equal to 1? 737 viewsDecember 31, 2023 Question100.55K October 4, 2023 0 Comments Wouldn’t this also mean that 1!=0!, why is this true? In: 383 18 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted October 4, 2023 0 Comments Because: n! = (n-1)! x n For example `3! = 2! x 3` or `128! = 127! x 128` That holds for all n greater than 1. If you also apply it to 1 it would imply that 0! = 1. No reason to break the pattern. You are viewing 1 out of 18 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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