Why is the taylor series for ln(x+1) so similar to the tailor series sin(x) or cos(x), yet the functions themselves are not at all?

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Why is the taylor series for ln(x+1) so similar to the tailor series sin(x) or cos(x), yet the functions themselves are not at all?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

I haven’t looked at the details in years, but the equation:

e^(ix) = cos(x) + i sin(x) , where i is the imaginary number sqrt(-1)

should show a relationship between the functions.

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