I remember asking my math teacher this when we first learned irrational number but they said they didn’t know. Not sure if it’s just a stupid question or not.
In: 10
I was surprised that proof that π isn’t a rational number is so recent:
> In the 1760s, Johann Heinrich Lambert was the first to prove that the number π is irrational, meaning it cannot be expressed as a fraction *a*/*b*, where *a* and *b* are both integers. In the 19th century, Charles Hermite found a proof that requires no prerequisite knowledge beyond basic calculus.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_that_%CF%80_is_irrational
Unlike, say, that √2 is irrational, which has been known for ages.
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