Like for example, apparently in a one-party-consent state, you can only record someone’s voice as long as one of the people consents. In this case it would be yourself. Why would this rule exist if of course you’re gonna always consent to it. You’re asking yourself for consent to record someone else?
Or is this just so that you can bring it up to someone IN CASE they don’t want you recording their voice but you have every right to.
Or is it exploiting a loophole?
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Lets say you suspect your wife of cheating on you. In a one party consent state, you would need to get her permission (or her paramour’s) to record her phone conversations in an effort to prove it.
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