Like for example, apparently in a one-party-consent state, you can only record someone’s voice as long as one of the people consents. In this case it would be yourself. Why would this rule exist if of course you’re gonna always consent to it. You’re asking yourself for consent to record someone else?
Or is this just so that you can bring it up to someone IN CASE they don’t want you recording their voice but you have every right to.
Or is it exploiting a loophole?
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Lots of places are two party consent. But for the one party consent it’s so a third party (e.g. the police absent a warrant) cannot do it without at least one person knowing.
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