Like for example, apparently in a one-party-consent state, you can only record someone’s voice as long as one of the people consents. In this case it would be yourself. Why would this rule exist if of course you’re gonna always consent to it. You’re asking yourself for consent to record someone else?
Or is this just so that you can bring it up to someone IN CASE they don’t want you recording their voice but you have every right to.
Or is it exploiting a loophole?
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It means that conversation involving you can be recorded but conversations not involving cannot. That leads to wiretapping laws. For example, you can record your own phone calls but if you record a phone call between two unconsenting parties, it is illegal. In single party consent states it is assumed that if you hold a conversation with someone it can be recorded.
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