Did the French really kill a bunch of rich people during the French Revolution?

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I’ve read A Tale of Two Cities. I took high school history. I have access to Wikipedia.

But I somehow can’t really believe it. Did a mass of unwashed peasants really kidnap hundreds, maybe thousands of aristocrats and send them to the guillotine? Were there trials? What was the legal pretense, if any, for doing this? Who was rich enough to get executed and who was considered not rich enough? Did it even really happen or was it just the royal family that was executed, and it was exaggerated over time?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

> Did a mass of unwashed peasants

Calling them “unwashed peasants” probably isn’t helping you to understand things.

That was kind of their point, that just because they were poor didn’t mean they were any less capable of running things than the rich.

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