Eli5: Gamblers fallacy

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How is it that when you flip a coin 10 times, the likely hood that it’ll land on heads 10 times in a row is extremely small but the likely hood that it’ll land on heads is 50/50 if it already landed on heads 9 times? I get that it’s a closed system and its roughly 50/50 for every coin flip but my brain is just telling me that it should be a higher chance that it would land on tails instead of heads. How does this work?

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Each toss is its own event. The past coin tosses have no effect on the outcome of the current coin toss. 9 heads in a row would be a 1 in 512 occurrence. 10 heads in a row would be a 1 in 1024 occurrence. Likewise, a person playing blackjack, whom lost 10 hands in a row, is not due a winning hand.

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