Hi all,
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I’ve been curious about this for a while. Lets say there are two people, one with perfect eyesight, and another who does not have perfect eyesight and wears prescription glasses. If the person with perfect eyesight wears the prescription glasses, does that person see the exact way the person who does not have good eyesight does?
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Thanks in advance and I hope I was clear!
In: Biology
Prescription glasses are corrective lenses that allow the person with less than perfect vision to achieve 20/20 vision, or as close to that as is possible depending on the severity of their eyesight dysfunction.
If the person with perfect vision puts on the prescription glasses (corrective lenses), their vision through those glasses is all messed up but it doesn’t equate to them seeing the way the other person does without their glasses, although this might give them an idea of how that person feels without their glasses because it does impair their vision while they are wearing them.
For example, I have 20/70 vision which means that I have to be no more than 20 ft away from an object to see it while a person with 20/20 vision (like my husband) can see that same object at 70 ft away. When my husband put on my glasses he felt like he would fall over and it made him dizzy and nauseous. I don’t feel that way without my glasses, I just can’t see clearly anything further than 20 ft.
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