[ELI5] Perfect Eyesight/Prescription Glasses

Question

Hi all,

​

I’ve been curious about this for a while. Lets say there are two people, one with perfect eyesight, and another who does not have perfect eyesight and wears prescription glasses. If the person with perfect eyesight wears the prescription glasses, does that person see the exact way the person who does not have good eyesight does?

​

Thanks in advance and I hope I was clear!

In: Biology

Answer 1

Imagine it like this:
If 0 is perfect, and the glasses wearer has -2 vision without glasses, then the glass corrects by adding 2. Therefore, perfect eye person would now have a +2 sight. Their vision would distort as if they were too close to an object. It doesn’t magnify, just bends the light differently.