ELI5; why is none of something pluralised? 2.87K viewsJanuary 3, 2024 Question100.55K May 25, 2019 0 Comments Just wondering if there is a reason why when you have none of something it is pluralised? For example, I have 1 apple becomes I have no/0 apples. In: Other 6 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted May 26, 2019 0 Comments if some things exist, generally there are more than one of them, in fact one assumes there are many. So talking about zero of the many is expressed as none of them, or zero of them. You are viewing 1 out of 6 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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