ELI5; why is none of something pluralised?

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Just wondering if there is a reason why when you have none of something it is pluralised?

For example, I have 1 apple becomes I have no/0 apples.

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6 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

if some things exist, generally there are more than one of them, in fact one assumes there are many. So talking about zero of the many is expressed as none of them, or zero of them.

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