ELI5; why is none of something pluralised?

2.48K views

Just wondering if there is a reason why when you have none of something it is pluralised?

For example, I have 1 apple becomes I have no/0 apples.

In: Other

6 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

In this case the plural is also the collective noun. You’re not really talking about *any* amount of apples but rather the concept of apples (specifically your lack of possession).

Or another way: It’s because what you’re *really* doing is saying in one statement that you do not have each and every apple, so you use the plural.

The singular (generally) refers to a specific apple, whether positive or negative.

“I have no apple” is totally acceptable, but it kinda implies (a tiny bit) that you have a particular apple in mind that you lack. :p

You are viewing 1 out of 6 answers, click here to view all answers.