ELI5; why is none of something pluralised?

2.48K views

Just wondering if there is a reason why when you have none of something it is pluralised?

For example, I have 1 apple becomes I have no/0 apples.

In: Other

6 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

I think that, in the context, it means not a single one of many? If you know of something that’s singular but you don’t have it, then you might say I do not have a/n blank. So basically the context changes how they’re used. I have a 0% interest rate for the first 6 months refers to a single thing. I have no/zero interest in this conversation.

You are viewing 1 out of 6 answers, click here to view all answers.