eli5 Why is the circumference of a circle divided by its diameter always (for the majority) equal to pi?

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eli5 Why is the circumference of a circle divided by its diameter always (for the majority) equal to pi?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

People stated things similar to this but its the opposite. Pi is defined that way not that the other way around. Since all circles follow this because they are perfect circles it always works.

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