eli5 Why is the circumference of a circle divided by its diameter always (for the majority) equal to pi?
In: 8
Because that’s how we defined pi. It’s defined as the ratio of circumference to diameter and since you can’t change one without changing the other proportionately, that ratio never changes.
There is no circle in which the ratio of circumference to diameter is not pi. All circles are exactly the same, magnitude does not change proportions. I’m not sure why you added “for the majority”.
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