More specifically:
Why, when a person from a region that typically eats spicy food eats something you think is hot, do they say “this isn’t spicy” even if there’s like 5 jalapenos (exaggeration.) Can they taste the spice but they’re just used to it and are being mean to my caucasian tastebuds, or can they literally not register any spice. If the second one, how does this work? If the prior, how does being used to spicy things work?
Edit: on reflection, 5 jalapenos clearly isnt an exaggeration.
Edit 2: I’m talking MY caucasian tastebuds. Me being from Europe where spice is not everywhere. I’m not saying white people can’t be used to spice. (That’s sort of what I was asking anyway, is spice tolerance nature or nurture)
In: Biology
Obviously most of the comments are spot on about habituation, but I’d just like to add that there is evidence that a genetic contribution plays a role too. Some people can be classified as “strong tasters,” and some people as “weak tasters.” People who are weak tasters tend to seek out and prefer very flavorful foods to get the stimulation they crave from their food. I am almost certain I fall into this group, because even though I’m Caucasian I greatly prefer super strong tasting foods—spicy curries, strong pickled foods, egregious amounts of salt in everything. The more potent and spicy my food the better.
Edit to add more info: [Harvard article on super tasters vs non tasters](https://www.hsph.harvard.edu/nutritionsource/2016/05/31/super-tasters-non-tasters-is-it-better-to-be-average/) . About halfway down the article is where they start discussing genetic contributions to taste.
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