How does Euler’s identity work?

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I have looked up countless explanations for this equation and none of them make sense to me. The equation just seems like putting random numbers that have no relation together and somehow producing a beautiful outcome. If I substituted pi for another real number, would the equation still produce 0? Just please explain, how does this all work?

In: Mathematics

5 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

It’s because the numbers aren’t random. They define each other. Like saying “a kidney bean is a bean shaped like a kidney”.

“E” is a number that’s often used when defining the result of counting things to infinity.

A circle is just a polygon with infinite sides. And “Pi” deals with circles. So “Pi” and “E” are related.

“I” is a number that’s often used when dealing with a formula that goes up and down over and over and over. Like a wave. And the sine and cosine functions are waves. And the sine and cosine functions are built using circles. So “I” and “Pi” are related, and by extension, “I” and “E” are related.

And the way that they’re related is that e^(i*pi) = -1

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