How does HIV spread to heterosexual males substantially if the risk for getting it from an encounter is less than 1 out of 1,000?

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So they say the rate for vaginal sex is [less than 1 out of 1000](https://www.hiv.va.gov/patient/faqs/risk-of-unprotected-sex-with-woman.asp). So how do most heterosexuals get it. Is it through anal sex or drugs and would that man a heterosexual that has vaginal sex has a negligible chance of getting it? Apparently if you’re circumsized too your risk is much less as well?

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3 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

I think it’s important to identify why the risk for heterosexual men engaging in vaginal sex is relatively low: the HIV virus itself doesn’t fare well outside of the body/bloodstream. So the amount of fluid exchanged from a woman to a man during vaginal sex is minimal, and any fluid that may be able to enter through the tip of the penis will likely be exposed to outside elements, thus killing the virus.

This means that the risk will increase if there are any other ways of entry into the bloodstream; for example, any abrasions, open wounds or sores on the penis. This would include something serious like lesions from herpes or syphilis, but it might include smaller and more benign openings that might be caused by excessive friction.

Anonymous 0 Comments

Exposure to contaminated blood, sharing needles from drug use, rape, one unlucky 1/1,000 fuck.

There are about 150 million heterosexual males in the US (very rough eatimate). That’s a lot of chances for the thousand-sided die to land a natural 1.

Anonymous 0 Comments

* heterosexual guys aren’t always heterosexual.

* anal sex is more risky because it is not as elastic, and it makes contact with blood more common.

* One in 1000 is not very uncommon if you have a lot of sex. It only happens once, and then you can spread it around.