How is the gambler’s fallacy not a logical paradox? A flipped coin coming up heads 25 times in a row has odds in the millions, but if you flip heads 24 times in a row, the 25th flip still has odds of exactly 0.5 heads. Isn’t there something logically weird about that?

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I know it’s true, it’s just something that seems hard to wrap my head around. How is this not a logical paradox?

In: Mathematics

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Anonymous 0 Comments

Any specific combination of 25 flips would have the same odds. Singling out them all being the same only has psychological significance, not statistical significance.

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