How is the gambler’s fallacy not a logical paradox? A flipped coin coming up heads 25 times in a row has odds in the millions, but if you flip heads 24 times in a row, the 25th flip still has odds of exactly 0.5 heads. Isn’t there something logically weird about that?

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I know it’s true, it’s just something that seems hard to wrap my head around. How is this not a logical paradox?

In: Mathematics

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Anonymous 0 Comments

You’re talking about the odds of a set of things happening vs a single instance.

An example

the chances of everything that led to the evolution of man vs the chances I’m going to go get a coffee.

Damn. All the things that lead to my creation and now I’m gonna go get a coffee. Can’t wrap your head around that?
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